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To be copied where no red line drawn through
When Divines talk of a state of Nature, they
mean by it that State or condition in which
they generallysuppose the generality of Mankind to have been before
the prosaic Dispensation, in which they
suppose that part of Mankind still to be continue,
to whom the Mosaic of Christian dispensations
are known. But was it allowable
in our author to use the term in his
But our author cannot have used the term in this
sense: can itsense because in this sense it cannotwith any propriety be
applied in this sense in a Treatise
on Jurisprudence. How so? Does the Author never
use his in any
sense but the proper one? When Lawyers talk
of a state of Nature,if they mean any
thing by it, they must mean that state
or conditionin which men existed before their entrance into Society: or which is the same thingbefore their
submission to anypositive Laws.
Now
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Note
*"When Society is once formed SocietyGovernment
results
(6)(25)
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